[Free Cisco] 2018 (January) Most Important Cisco CICD 210-060 Dumps CCNA Collaboration Certification Material 100% Pass With A High Score Youtube 203 Q&As Share[147-162]
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How to win with Cisco 210-060 dumps? The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (210-060 CICD) exam is a 75 Minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Collaboration certification. Most important Cisco 210-060 dumps CICD CCNA Collaboration certification material 100% pass with a high score Youtube. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-060 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-060 exam. Foremost important thing is an applicant must be vigilant in English language because the mode of paper is English, all of your https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-060.html dumps paper questions will be in English only, there is no alternate option for language.
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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 210-060 Dumps Blog Series:
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B
An engineer must configure QoS for a VoIP network. Which option is the best QoS model for this task?
Correct Answer: B
A Cisco Unified Communications administrator wants to implement Cisco IM and Presence for the company. If it is installed in IM-only user mode, which three services are supported for users? (Choose three.)
A. video calls support
B. third-party XMPP client support
C. presence support
D. Microsoft Lync support
E. Microsoft Office Communicator support
F. instant messaging support
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: BCF
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 151
NIST SP 800-53A defines three types of interview depending on the level of assessment conducted. Which of the following NIST SP 800-53A interviews consists of informal and ad hoc interviews?
210-060 pdf Answer: C
Explanation: Abbreviated interview consists of informal and ad hoc interviews.
Answer: D is incorrect. Substantial interview consists of informal and structured interviews.
Answer: A is incorrect. Comprehensive interview consists of formal and structured interviews.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such type of interview in NIST SP 800-53A.
QUESTION NO: 152
Which of the following are the principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on self-test)? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides a user interface for system’s configuration.
B. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices.
C. It delegates control to other BIOS, if it is required.
D. It discovers size and verifies system memory.
E. It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself.
F. It interrupts the execution of all running programs.
Explanation: The principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self-test) are as follows: It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself. It discovers size and verifies system memory. It discovers, initializes, and catalogs all system hardware. It delegates control to other BIOS if it is required. It provides a user interface for system’s configuration. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices. It executes the bootstrap program. Answer: F is incorrect. The BIOS does not interrupt the execution of all running programs.
QUESTION NO: 153
In which of the following architecture styles does a device receive input from connectors and generate transformed outputs?
C. Pipes and filters
210-060 vce Answer: C
Explanation: In the pipes and filters architecture style, a device receives input from connectors and generates transformed outputs. A pipeline has a series of processing elements in which the output of each element works as an input of the next element. A little amount of buffering is provided between the two successive elements.
QUESTION NO: 154
Fred is the project manager of the CPS project. He is working with his project team to prioritize the identified risks within the CPS project. He and the team are prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining the risks probability of occurrence and impact. What process is Fred completing?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk Breakdown Structure creation
C. Perform qualitative analysis
D. Perform quantitative analysis
Explanation: Qualitative ranks the probability and impact and then helps the project manager and team to determine which risks need further analysis. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis and action. It combines risks and their probability of occurrences and ranks them accordingly. It enables organizations to improve the project’s performance by focusing on high-priority risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is usually a rapid
and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses. It also lays the foundation for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk identification precedes this activity. Answer: B is incorrect. This process does not describe the decomposition and organization of risks that you will complete in a risk breakdown structure.
Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative analysis is the final step of risk analysis. Note the question tells you that Fred and the team will identify risks for additional analysis.
QUESTION NO: 155
Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
210-060 exam Answer: A,B,D,F
Explanation: The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential level of data is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer: C and E are incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.
QUESTION NO: 156
Which of the following statements are true about declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code.
B. It applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime.
C. In this security, authentication decisions are made based on the business logic.
D. In this security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements.
Explanation: Declarative security applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime. In this type of security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements that confine security behavior. Declarative security applies security permissions that are required for the software application to access the local resources and provides role-based access control to an individual software component and software application. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code. Answer: C is incorrect. In declarative security, authentication decisions are coarse-grained in nature from an operational or external security perspective.
QUESTION NO: 157
What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment?
A. Risk analysis plan
B. Staffing management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Human resource management plan
210-060 dumps Answer: C
Explanation: The risk management plan defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and then monitored and controlled regardless of the structure of the organization.
Answer: D is incorrect. The human resources management plan does define how risks will be analyzed.
Answer: B is incorrect. The staffing management plan does define how risks will be analyzed.
Answer: A is incorrect. The risk analysis plan does define how risks will be analyzed.
QUESTION NO: 158
The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department’s information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Defending systems
B. Providing IA Certification and Accreditation
C. Providing command and control and situational awareness
D. Protecting information
Explanation: The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD’s workforce
QUESTION NO: 159
Which of the following vulnerabilities occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions?
A. Insecure cryptographic storage
B. Malicious file execution
C. Insecure communication
D. Injection flaw
210-060 pdf Answer: B
Explanation: Malicious file execution is a vulnerability that occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions. This leads to arbitrary remote and hostile data being included, processed, and invoked by the Web server. Malicious file execution can be prevented by using an indirect object reference map, input validation, or explicit taint checking mechanism.
Answer: D is incorrect. Injection flaw occurs when data is sent to an interpreter as a part of command or query.
Answer: A is incorrect. Insecure cryptographic storage occurs when applications have failed to encrypt data.
Answer: C is incorrect. Insecure communication occurs when applications have failed to encrypt network traffic.
QUESTION NO: 160 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the appropriate principle documents in front of their respective functions.
The various principle documents of transformation are as follows: CNSSP 22: It establishes a national risk management policy for national security systems. CNSSI 1199: It creates the technique in which the national security community classifies the information and information systems with regard to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. CNSSI 1253: It combines DCID 6/3, DOD Instructions 8500.2, NIST SP 800-53, and other security sources into a single cohesive repository of security controls. CNSSI 1253 A. It offers the techniques to assess adequacy of each security control. CNSSI 1260: It provides guidance to organizations with the characterization of their information and information systems. NIST 800-37, Revision 1: It defines the certification and accreditation (C & A) process. The NIST 800-37, Revision 1 is a combination of DNI, DoD, and
QUESTION NO: 161 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the appropriate external constructs in front of their respective functions. There are two types of compositional constructs: 1.External constructs: The various types of external constructs are as follows: Cascading: In this type of external construct, one system gains the input from the output of another system. Feedback: In this type of external construct, one system provides the input to another system, which in turn feeds back to the input of the first system. Hookup: In this type of external construct, one system communicates with another system as well as with external entities. 2.Internal 210-060 vce constructs: The internal constructs include intersection, union, and difference.
QUESTION NO: 162
Which of the following are the primary functions of configuration management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It removes the risk event entirely by adding additional steps to avoid the event.
B. It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing.
C. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources.
D. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system.
Explanation: The primary functions of configuration management are as follows: It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing. It ensures that the user base is informed of the future change. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not one of the primary functions of configuration management. It is the function of risk avoidance.
The pattern of 210-060 dumps Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices is meek MCQs. All the questions would be a multiple choice question. An applicant would be given 90 mints to solve 203 multiple choice questions. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0”, also known as 210-060 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-060 dumps exam questions answers are updated (203 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-060 dumps is CCNA Collaboration. All these https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-060.html dumps questions will be based on your practical and theoretical knowledge which you will be materializing to bring solution on the board.
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