What is the CCNA Wireless equivalent of the 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification. Most hottest Cisco 200-355 dumps WIFUND practice exam latest version pdf&vce Youtube training. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-355 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-355 exam. It is very important to get https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps skills in the field Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals. It is a vast field that is helpful in all departments today. Information technology speeds up the functionality of business, government affairs, medical care, and other fields of life.
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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 200-355 Dumps Blog Series:
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB
What three characteristics are components of mobility anchoring? (Choose three.)
A. enabled as a global setting
B. enabled on a per WLAN basis
C. restricts clients to a specific subnet
D. client traffic is tunneled to predefined WLC(s)
E. only one mobility anchor is allowed per WLAN
F. acts as master controller for a mobility group
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BCD
Which statement best describes the ability of a wireless client to access and transmit a data frame to an AP?
A. The client listens to the media until polled by the AP using PCF to send its data.
B. The client listens to the media until a data frame is finished, at which time it transmits, unless a collision of data frames has occurred.
C. The client uses random countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
D. The client listens to the media and countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
Correct Answer: D
In a typical wireless network using WPA, WPA2 or VPN, why is it still possible for a rogue client to launch a DOS attack?
A. WPA and WPA2 are not considered strong encryption algorithms and are easily cracked.
B. 802.11 management frames are easily compromised.
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 are required with WPA, WPA2, or VPN to keep rogues from launching attacks in the wireless network.
D. The message integrity check frames are never encrypted or authenticated, which allows rogues to spoof clients.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
What two methods of authentication are available for Local EAP?
A. LDAP and RADIUS
B. Local and RADIUS
C. Local Only
D. LDAP and Local
Correct Answer: D
When adding a controller to manage through Cisco WCS, which address type is used and which SNMP function does the Cisco WCS perform?
A. The controller is managed through its MAC address and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP TRAP authenticator.
B. The IP address of the controller is used and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP TRAP receiver.
C. The controller is managed through its MAC address and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP agent.
D. The controller connects through its MAC address to the Cisco WCS and the Cisco WCS uses the SNMP to manage
the controller for all configured SNMP parameters.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B
You run minimum PEAP-GTC authentication in your wireless environment. Which version of Cisco Compatible Extensions supports PEAP-GTC?
A. Cisco Compatible Extensions v1
B. Cisco Compatible Extensions v2
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v3
D. Cisco Compatible Extensions v4
E. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5
Correct Answer: B
Which method is used to shield the client from class 3 management attacks?
A. client MFP
D. client protection suite
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 144
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.
A. Evaluation and acceptance
B. Programming and training
200-355 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: It is the evaluation and acceptance phase of the SDLC, which meets the following audit objectives: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements Answer: D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: C is incorrect. During the definition phase, users’ needs are defined and the needs are translated into requirements statements that incorporate appropriate controls. Answer: B is incorrect. During the programming and training phase, the software and other components of the system are faithfully incorporated into the design specifications. Proper documentation and training are provided in this phase.
QUESTION NO: 145
The build environment of secure coding consists of some tools that actively support secure specification, design, and implementation. Which of the following features do these tools have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses.
B. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that have occurred by insecure software behavior.
C. They decrease the attack surface.
D. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. E. They decrease the level of type checking and program analysis.
Explanation: The tools that produce secure software have the following features: They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses. They decrease the attack surface. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that are caused by the behavior of insecure software. Answer: E is incorrect. This feature is not required for these tools.
QUESTION NO: 146
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
B. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
200-355 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation: FISMA and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) require all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before they are put into production. General support systems and major applications are also referred to as information systems and are required to be reaccredited every three years.
Answer: A is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute’s official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.
Answer: C is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.
QUESTION NO: 147
What are the security advantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper “Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards”? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing.
B. It adds a layer of security for defense-in-depth.
C. It decreases exposure of weak software.
D. It decreases configuration effort.
Explanation: The security advantages of virtualization are as follows: It adds a layer of security for defense-in-depth. It provides strong encapsulation of errors. It increases intrusion detection through introspection. It decreases exposure of weak software. It increases the flexibility for discovery. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing using rollback and snapshot features. Answer: D is incorrect. Virtualization increases configuration effort because of complexity of the virtualization layer and composite system.
QUESTION NO: 148
Which of the following persons in an organization is responsible for rejecting or accepting the residual risk for a system?
A. Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)
B. Designated Approving Authority (DAA)
C. System Owner
D. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
200-355 vce Answer: B
Explanation: The authorizing official is the senior manager responsible for approving the working of the information system. He is responsible for the risks of operating the information system within a known environment through the security accreditation phase. In many organizations, the authorizing official is also referred as approving/accrediting authority (DAA) or the Principal Approving Authority (PAA). Answer: C is incorrect. The system owner has the responsibility of informing the key officials within the organization of the requirements for a security C&A of the information system. He makes the resources available, and provides the relevant documents to support the process. Answer: A is incorrect. An Information System Security Officer (ISSO) plays the role of a supporter. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows: Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification &
Accreditation (C&A). Insures the information systems configuration with the agency’s information security policy. Supports the information system owner/information owner for the completion of security-related responsibilities. Takes part in the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & Accreditation (C&A) packages. Answer: D is incorrect. The CISO has the responsibility of carrying out the CIO’s FISMA responsibilities. He manages the information security program functions.
QUESTION NO: 149
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System Definition
Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks,
and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system’s life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases:
1.System Definition 2.Verification
QUESTION NO: 150
Which of the following are the goals of risk management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Identifying the risk
B. Assessing the impact of potential threats
C. Identifying the accused
D. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the
200-355 exam Answer: A,B,D
Explanation: There are three goals of risk management as follows: Identifying the risk Assessing the impact of potential threats Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure Answer: C is incorrect. Identifying the accused does not come under the scope of risk management.
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