[Free Cisco] 2018 (January) 100% Real Cisco 300-160 Dumps DCID PDF Practise Questions that Works | Free 300-160 Dumps Youtube Is What You Need To Take 402Q&As Share[51-77]

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300-160 dumps
Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-160 Dumps Blog Series:
QUESTION 51
During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit
A. ISO 9126-1 `Software engineering- Product quality Part 1: Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.
B. ISA 4126-1 `Software engineering- Product quality Part 1: Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.
C. BS-7925-2 `Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.
D. SY-395-01 `Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.
E. IEEE 829 `standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.
300-160 exam 
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 52
Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit
A. Test planning and control
B. Test implementation & execution
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. Test project closure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy?2 credits (2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test
B. Define test career paths
C. Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house
D. Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks
E. Issue the test strategy document for review
F. Define a master test plan template
G. Perform a project risk analysis
300-160 dumps 
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 54
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
D. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document
b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements
c. A detailed schedule of testing activities
d. The development deliverables to be tested
e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
f. Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
F. f
300-160 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 56
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test
b. strategy document
c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource
d. requirements
e. A detailed schedule of testing activities
f. The development deliverables to be tested
g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
h. Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
F. f
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 57
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits
A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
300-160 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
A. The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.
B. The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
C. The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
D. The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits
A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
B. Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
C. Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
D. Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
300-160 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development?
A. It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.
B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
C. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
D. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach?
A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
B. Project management and control
C. No complete requirements specification
D. Time-boxing
300-160 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits
A. Decision Table Testing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Error Guessing
D. Exploratory Testing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage?
A. Percentage of business requirements exercised
B. Percentage of planned hours worked this week
C. Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
D. Percentage of test iterations completed
300-160 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Which statement is true about routing tables on a Junos device?
A. They purge any routes not selected as active routes.
B. They exist in two places: the Routing Engine and the Packet Forwarding Engine.

C. They are exclusively designed to handle dynamic routing protocols.
D. They populate the forwarding table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?
A. All platforms running the Junos OS separate the functions of learning and flooding.
B. All platforms running the Junos OS separate the functions of control and forwarding.
C. All platforms running the Junos OS separate the functions of routing and bridging.
D. All platforms running the Junos OS separate the functions of management and routing.
300-160 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
A network administrator would like to view detailed interface status, properties, statistics, errors, and CoS packet counters. Which operational command will display this information?
A. show interfaces extensive
B. show interfaces
C. show configuration interfaces
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
On which operating system is the Junos OS based?
A. ScreenOS
B. Solaris
C. FreeBSD
D. HP-UX
300-160 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which two statements are true regarding the role of the Routing Engine (RE)? (Choose two.)
A. The RE controls and monitors the chassis.
B. The RE manages the Packet Forwarding Engine (PFE).
C. The RE receives a copy of the forwarding table from the forwarding plane.
D. The RE implements class of service (COS).
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 69
You accidentally configured interface so-0/0/0.0 with 1.1.1.1/32 instead of 1.1.1.1/30. Which two solutions could you use to correct this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. [edit interfaces so-0/0/0.0] [email protected]# replace family inet address 1.1.1.1/32 with 1.1.1.1/30
B. [edit interfaces so-0/0/0.0] [email protected]# rename family inet address 1.1.1.1/32 to address 1.1.1.1/30
C. [edit]
  [email protected]# replace interface so-0/0/0.0 family inet address 1.1.1.1/32 with address 1.1.1.1/30
D. [edit interfaces so-0/0/0.0] [email protected]# delete family inet address [email protected]# set family inet address 1.1.1.1/30
300-160 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 70
Which two commands will successfully create ping traffic? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]# ping 10.10.10.1
B. [email protected]# run ping 10.10.10.1
C. [email protected]> ping 10.10.10.1
D. [email protected]> request ping 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 71
What are two valid actions for a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. discard
B. next policy
C. accept
D. ignore
300-160 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 72
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing is typically more scalable when compared to static routing.
B. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration.
C. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices.
D. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity, whereas static routing does not.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
There are three static routes in the routing table that need to be announced to your OSPF peers. Which method is used to accomplish this?
A. Apply an import policy to OSPF that injects the static routes into OSPF.
B. Apply an import policy to the static routes that injects the static routes into OSPF.
C. Apply an export policy to the static routes that injects the static routes into OSPF.
D. Apply an export policy to OSPF that injects the static routes into OSPF.
300-160 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A. snoop
B. tcpdump
C. monitor
D. tail
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Which two login-class permissions could permit a user to view the system hierarchy of the active configuration? (Choose two.)
A. system permission
B. view-configuration permission
C. network permission
D. super-user permission
300-160 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 76
You have just issued the command [email protected]# save current.conf. Assuming the default settings, where in the file system is current.conf saved?
A. /var/tmp/
B. /var/config/saved/
C. /var/home/user/
D. /config/
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which statement is true regarding the Network Time Protocol (NTP) on Junos devices?
A. MD5 authentication is supported by the Junos OS.
B. Server mode is not supported by the Junos OS.
C. The Junos OS can provide a primary time reference.
D. The Junos OS does not support the use of a boot server.
300-160 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
300-160 dumps

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